lawgator1
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But you are equating his income and tax rate to a cause for the middle class not doing so well.
What you've posted above is a "fairness" argument but it then gets couched in a "solution" argument - the way to help the middle class is to make him pay more.
This is the fundamental disconnect and where the intellectual dishonesty in the Obama message comes in - "you are all suffering because he isn't paying enough" and the corollary - "if we make him pay more, your situation will improve". Until you show the mechanism of how him paying more improves the economic condition of the middle class then you are simply creating a boogey man out of the well-off.
1) You are looking at this in far too narrow a time frame. Its not that I can trace the extra $6 million that Romney SHOULD be paying and then track it and show you who in the middle class paid a bit less because of it. Rather, it is that long term we have greater revenue which decreases the debt and lifts the long-term burden on the middle class to deal with that debt.
(Not to mention all of the good long term consequences to every tier of the economy created by reducing debt).
More importantly ....
2) Let's say you are right, and that we can never show that an increase in Romney's taxes leads to a direct, 1-to-1 reduction in the taxes of middle class Americans.
So? Is it not still the case that Romney should pay the same rate as anyone in his income level, regardless of the course of the income?
You speak of "intellectual honesty," but then you seek to apply to my argument a test that you create for purposes of the argument failing, a test which, in the end, can never be met (because you cannot track the dollars), and a test which really misses a justifying measure of what I'm saying.
Which is that there is no legitimate reason Romney should pay less in taxes for making his money off of investments versus making it off of working.