Is this a troll question? Because it makes no sense.
Wealth inequality is not the opposite of equally wealthy. Wealth inequality is a measure of difference, not a state. It could be 99 to 1, or 51 to 49. Equally wealthy is a state vector of economic equilibrium, ie...50 to 50, nothing else.
Where exactly in the posted article does the author advocate equal wealth distribution? Seems to me all he is arguing for is closing the gap a little, and not only that, he openly admits that taxation in the form of current government allocation isn't necessarily the optimal solution.