I don't understand this. Both have graduate degrees from Harvard and both have proven to be idiotic presidents. How was I only half right.You are half right.
I agree, but it only seems to matter if the candidate is a white male. Otherwise, seemingly all commentary is fine.To me even the faintest whiff of racial or gender bias puts me off of any judicial nominee. Throw in even a molecule of "legislate from the bench" attitude and I don't want them anywhere near SCOTUS.
not to sound like a moderate here, but this is a fight the GOP doesn't need to get too involved in. Sure, grill her during her confirmation hearings and maybe let her pass out of committee on a party-line vote, but once her nomination reaches the full senate, don't engage in any of the tactics the dems pulled during the Alito and Roberts' nominations.
I hate identity politics, but the GOP has already lost 90% of the black vote, it doesn't need to lose a constituency that by and large shares much of the party's social platform.
More evidence this women is a race baiter:
A Sotomayor Ruling Gets Scrutiny - WSJ.com
"We're not suggesting that unqualified people be hired," Judge Sotomayor told Ms. Torre at the argument's end. But "if your test is going to always put a certain group at the bottom of the pass rate so they're never, ever going to be promoted, and there is a fair test that could be devised that measures knowledge in a more substantive way, then why shouldn't the city have an opportunity to try to look and see if it can develop that?"
Brilliant argument. If the right people don't get high scores than let's rewrite the test.
have you not read any of the story. A specialist did come in to write the test for the purpose of avoiding bias. How is any judge in any position to to determine that the specialist was wrong? I know it's easier to assume him incompetent rather than any of the test takers, but maybe that's just her bias.That is a misreading of the comment.
The knock on standardized tests is that they have an inherent bias. While its perfeclty legitimate for you to criticize changing the inherent bias to something else (which is apparently what you believe, i.e. that its result driven), the question she is REALLY asking is whether a test can be divised that has no inherent bias, at all?
Look at it this way: If the test results perpetually result in zero minority advancement, and if the sample size is large enough to merit at least some just on pure statisticial chance, the issue is whether the test is really measuring what you think you are measuring.
Its a perfectly legitimate question.
That is a misreading of the comment.
The knock on standardized tests is that they have an inherent bias. While its perfeclty legitimate for you to criticize changing the inherent bias to something else (which is apparently what you believe, i.e. that its result driven), the question she is REALLY asking is whether a test can be divised that has no inherent bias, at all?
Look at it this way: If the test results perpetually result in zero minority advancement, and if the sample size is large enough to merit at least some just on pure statisticial chance, the issue is whether the test is really measuring what you think you are measuring.
Its a perfectly legitimate question.
That is a misreading of the comment.
The knock on standardized tests is that they have an inherent bias. While its perfeclty legitimate for you to criticize changing the inherent bias to something else (which is apparently what you believe, i.e. that its result driven), the question she is REALLY asking is whether a test can be divised that has no inherent bias, at all?
Look at it this way: If the test results perpetually result in zero minority advancement, and if the sample size is large enough to merit at least some just on pure statisticial chance, the issue is whether the test is really measuring what you think you are measuring.
Its a perfectly legitimate question.