AM64
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- Feb 11, 2016
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I get where you are coming from but it's not just misinformation. I get the slippery slope and that is concerning but it takes a big leap to go from this specific case to any kind of misinformation. Assuming he is guilty, this is unique in that the intent/result is to deprive people of their vote. As a matter of principle, is it OK to swindle people out of their vote but not OK to intimidate them out of their vote? What is the difference?
Surely you would think it's criminal to set up fake voting booths to trick people into voting there, so where do we draw the line?
What if people sent out unsolicited ballots and someone else said "Use it; doesn't matter; you don't have to be a citizen, have ID, or anything else. You can vote as many times as you have ballots. Just sign with the addressee's name"?