lawgator1
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There is a distinction about the duty owed by government agencies to the public on the whole versus that owed by a private citizen. Has to do with sovereign immunity and separation of powers.
Without going into what is really enormous detail, the difference is that when the government acts negligently in carrying out its duties to the public on the whole, it is generally not actionable because, well, there are so many ways that could lead to liability that it would simply be unworkable.
Absent a special duty of care to the individual harmed, which typically arises by direct contact and assurance of safety, or having someone in custody, something along those lines, you cannot sue the government, for lack of a better phrase, when it doesn't do its job or doesn't do it well.
Agreed, but not the point I was making. If having a gun stolen from a vehicle makes the gun owner liable for it's later nefarious use then the idea that people in the government could knowingly disperse guns in a manner they knew would put said guns in the hands of criminals should leave you slack-jawed in abhorrence and looking for criminal recourse against those responsible.
Agreed, but not the point I was making. If having a gun stolen from a vehicle makes the gun owner liable for it's later nefarious use then the idea that people in the government could knowingly disperse guns in a manner they knew would put said guns in the hands of criminals should leave you slack-jawed in abhorrence and looking for criminal recourse against those responsible.
You say you agree with my post, but I don't think you understand it, given that statement.
I don't think that gun control, in the traditional sense, is politically doable. It may not even be basically practical.
But I do think there is a lot to be said for holding people who buy guns accountable for the entirely predictable albeit unintended consequences of making that choice.
As I say, that is actually a fundamentally conservative point of view.
Can someone explain the private firearm transaction without an FFL? I thought you had to go through an FFL unless the transfer was from parent to child or between spouses.
ATF Online - Firearms - Frequently Asked Questions - Unlicensed Persons
"licensed" below refers to FFL
To whom may an unlicensed person transfer firearms under the GCA? A person may sell a firearm to an unlicensed resident of his State, if he does not know or have reasonable cause to believe the person is prohibited from receiving or possessing firearms under Federal law. A person may loan or rent a firearm to a resident of any State for temporary use for lawful sporting purposes, if he does not know or have reasonable cause to believe the person is prohibited from receiving or possessing firearms under Federal law. A person may sell or transfer a firearm to a licensee in any State. However, a firearm other than a curio or relic may not be transferred interstate to a licensed collector.
[18 U.S.C. 922(a)(3) and (5), 922(d), 27 CFR 478.29 and 478.30]
And the man who never fired a shot is being charged with First-Degree Murder...
God Bless America.
I understand the intent of the law but think it's a convoluted way to get there. Why not just make very harsh sentencing for armed burglary that results in a death rather than charging that person with another crime so you can increase the punishment?
Wonder what would have happened if you take the gun out of the equation.
He should be charged with breaking and entering. That is what this man did. Those were his actions.
Why wonder at that? Is our justice system based on prosecuting speculative crime?
And the man who never fired a shot is being charged with First-Degree Murder...
God Bless America.