volinbham
VN GURU
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I actually don't think either solution is particularly different. It's essentially just semantics, but one does show an immediate tangible impact on the books of our lenders.The insurance would be asset backed. If they had to insure the default, they would take ownership of the asset just as if they purchased it.
they would, but how do I put a value on the package? If I identify the assets today and put a definitive value out there, I've essentially bought them anyway, so it's the same plan without the positive market impact of balance sheet clearing.
I don't think it makes it easier for the lender to default. I think the same basic guidelines apply as to what they are doing now. The guidelines would require the borrower to be delinquent a certain number of days, and it could also require that certain steps be taken to work with the customer as most lenders are doing now.
people are much more aggressive about assets they own. The gov't will incentivize the management companies in collecting payments. The lenders would go through the motions, but it would look different.
The market does need a fix now, which to me doesn't mean selling assets to the government at greatly reduced prices. The fix is in the guarantee by the government. That doesn't necessarily mean they actually have to purchase all of the MBS on the market.
The guarantee by the gov't already exists via Fannie, but it's not keeping the MBS' from being completely devalued. I just think the gov't guarantee is a future effect that the market won't take as well.
Selling all MBS (good and bad) at .65 on the dollar or whatever that number turns out to be, doesn't seem like it's the best idea. If the government is willing to buy them at .65 on the dollar doesn't that imply worth? What happens if those are now valued on the books at .65 instead of 0. Does that change anything? (Just thinking out loud)
It only implies liquidation value, but the gov't purchase allows the market to avoid the wholesale liquidation of assets, helping it to keep its value.
I'm not sure how the insurance would work or even if it's possible. It's just a thought process as to another solution.
they would, but how do I put a value on the package? If I identify the assets today and put a definitive value out there, I've essentially bought them anyway, so it's the same plan without the positive market impact of balance sheet clearing.
people are much more aggressive about assets they own. The gov't will incentivize the management companies in collecting payments. The lenders would go through the motions, but it would look different.
The guarantee by the gov't already exists via Fannie, but it's not keeping the MBS' from being completely devalued. I just think the gov't guarantee is a future effect that the market won't take as well.
Thinking about it, I don't disagree that the insurance route could be managed to be effectively the same thing.
We're probably just playing semantics. If the gov't allows the banks to change their allocations for the problem assets, based solely upon the insurance plan, it's essentially the same thing.
The allocations are set so the FDIC can feel comfortable with its insurance position, so what's the difference? We'd still be talking in the same dollar figures and an oustized hand in the deal by the federal government, but the outcome would be the same, or pretty much so.
Again, I think we're talking sematics around a very similar solution.
I disagree unless you are assuming that ALL of the mortgages are going to default. You are comparing .65 cents on the dollar of all mortgages to insuring only ones that would default.
I don't understand, if treasuries are in such demand at 4% because they are guaranteed, wouldn't government insured mortgages be that same thing?
I just can't convince myself that they need to actually purchase all of the MBS on the market.
But you are identifying the entire asset pool of all MBS. Any values are arbitrary at this point, on either solution. Where is this .65 number coming from? It can't be "a definitive worth", can it?
I don't understand why this is? If this already exists how can they possibly be valued so low? I don't get it.
I have a question. What happened to the roadblock in place that if the market dropped below a certain amount it stopped trading for the day?
It would essentially change the mark to market rules so that banks could carry investments (loans or securities) on their books at book value (purchase price less depreciation and amortization) rather than marking them to fair market value (liquidation value) every quarter.Anyone know anything about the accounting rules that could be changed? I've seen it mentioned in various articles that they could rework some of the rules banks/lenders/someone has to work by and it would go a long way in alleviating the current panic.
GE is in some serious Doo-do if this rescue plan doesnt pan out
UPDATE 1-GE Capital CDS widens 130 bps to 680 bps-Phoenix | Markets | Markets News | Reuters