No.
It needs to be significantly less than 66% of poor whites voting republican to support what you said since America’s poverty population is roughly 1 part black to 3 parts white. so 1/3 of whites voting dem = 50/50. How much beyond 50/50 it needs to go to support what you said is subjective, which is why I asked for a link. You offered your nickel, instead.
You’re also ignoring a number of variables like the roughly 5-10% of blacks that vote republican; the fact that poor people are more likely to be disenfranchised and, I would guess, less likely to vote in general; that black people are statistically more likely to be disenfranchised. So that pushes that 2/3 number lower although probably not by much. Accounting for other races might push it higher but other minorities don’t vote democrat at the same rate as black people have, historically.
I’m not assuming anything. I really don’t have a preferred outcome. I was legitimately interested in whether there was a correlation between poverty and party affiliation. I wanted to know if you had any real basis or if it was just something you pulled out of your ass. I’ve gotten my answer.