I would say that is an absolute, objective truth. However, I would give well documented and manuscript reported history a nod over most other empirical proofs.
I haven't read through the whole thread so I don't know if the "Bible is a book of myths made up by men" argument has been presented. However, the manuscript evidence demonstrates very plainly that we have the text of the Bible to a very, very high degree of accuracy. Due to redundancy, we can confidently say that no fundamental doctrine is at risk by any uncertain text. So the letters we have are the letters the apostles had and penned.
The reason that is important is that 1000's of Christians were martyred in the 1st century rather than recant the resurrection or supernatural acts of Christ. Eleven of the 12 Disciples plus Paul were martyred while refusing to recant their testimonies of Christ's miracles.
Why would a person die for a lie? Brainwashed? Explain Paul who never met Christ in life. Furthermore, it would seem that at least some of the disciples (not just the twelve but the 500+ who witnessed the resurrected Christ) would have very famously recanted their belief as their brethren were martyred over a span of decades.
There is a spiritual aspect according to the Bible. God moves on people and convicts them. Some are responsive. Some harden.
However I also believe supernaturalism and in particular NT Christianity to be the most "reasonable" in answering the fundamental questions of life.
You would give a well-documented account over empirical proof? I'm not sure how best to respond to that, but perhaps someone might.
The accuract of the biblical text hasn't been broached, at least as I recall, as it's only secondary to the question at hand, namely: Can you (ostensibly, a spiritualist) effectively and empirically prove the existence of God?
I'd think that wondering if her/his words, deeds and covenants have been accurately portrayed in the course of the biblical text would be a far secondary concern to being certain of her/his existence in the first place, right? Simply, if this is some entirely fictitious character, who cares how accurately s/he has been reflected in some manuscript?
I understand the Christian ideation of the Holy Spirit.....and you attribute the choosing of the respective sides by thow who either accept or becomed hardened by it? How then do you hope to explain the following:
1. "Christians" who (seemingly) are accepting of it, but then go on to be such poor representations of Christ, and his message? Do you consider that to be an "acceptance" of the Spirit's urgings?
2. Atheists who have never experienced nor encountered any such Spirit, whatsoever, but instead, have simply observed natural law and decided that this is the most plausible reason for the actions of the world around them? In other words, they have not becomed "hardened", but instead, simply accept the more tangible and convincing (natural) evidences around them? Is that still a rejection of the Spirit (if such exists)?