The edit was a god edit. It simply quoted your lying post that claimed I hadn't answered, along with my detailed answer, and said "crickets". It was good because being right doesn't justify gloating.
I'll remind you of the debate: Whether inherently immoral acts are justified by the results of the acts. As described earlier, you lost when you accepted the Word and Will of God as the objective standard for the debate. Christian ethics will never justify an objectively immoral action by its result. Christian ethics do not work that way. However, Christian ethics can and will condemn otherwise morally neutral actions as immoral based on the motive behind them.
Thus, as mentioned, there is nothing objectively immoral about breaking someone's window. Much as there was nothing objectively immoral about damaging a neighbor's ox in the law. It was what it was. There was no moral penalty to be paid. There was only the matter of paying the owner what he lost. Similarly, there is nothing objectively immoral about breaking another's window, unless the motive behind it was to harm the owner of the window or benefit at their expense. Then the selfish/damaging motive attribute immorality to the act.
Luther's reason for bringing this up was to then claim that the end of...say...saving my kid from their home, would justify the immoral act of breaking their window. But that's the opposite of Christian ethics. It's a morally neutral act, dependent on intent, and I still may have to pay the owner of the window the value of the window after the fact, even with good motives.
Believe it or not, per the Word and Will of God, hitting someone in the head with a rock is morally neutral until Christian ethics considers the motive behind it. The OT law actually commanded people TO stone others under the law. Is the motive to hurt an innocent, or to condemn a criminal in God's name of justice? The motive (not the result, both are injured/dead) define the moral standing of the act.
Now, Luther either recognized the difference between this ethic, and his defended ethic of justifying objectively immoral actions (and that's why he wouldn't touch the actual post where I explained the difference), or as predicted he's not quite nimble of thought enough to recognize the difference. But it's a difference of direction. Can we justify objectively immoral actions because of their outcomes? And is it different to define something as immoral based on motives?
Now Luther, you seem to be trying to equivocate the debate to one of any means being justified by its end. But that's not the debate. The debate is whether an objectively immoral action can be justified by its outcome.
Let's see the difference...
I break your car window to save the baby you forgot was strapped in the back seat. Christian-ethics says that breaking your window is a morally neutral action, but an immoral motive can make the action immoral. Even so, ethics say that we will need to take care of the matter of your value lost.
Is it immoral to break your car window to do you harm? Yes. Is it immoral to break your car window to profit off of insurance fraud? Yes. Neither can be justified by their ends.
Is looking at a woman immoral? No. Does looking at a woman need to be justified? No.
Is looking at a woman to dwell on pornographic desires immoral? By Christian ethics, defined by God's Word, yes it is. And that end doesn't justify the immorality.
Is it immoral to spread vicious rumors about someone to destroy their character and name? By Christian ethics and the Word of God, yes it is. Does doing it to delay a confirmation hearing justify it? No. Never.
Is it immoral to cheat on your spouse? Yes. Is it justified if your spouse cheated first? No. It's an immoral act that isn't justified by compounding the immorality.
Those are no "twists". It's a clear, scripture-supported description of why Christian ethics differ from your "ends justify the means", and a highlight of how you are trying to use a misunderstanding to claim that there is no difference between the two.