So when do we get past:
When does that distinction become "close enough" to be accepted and to move on? In science we have to recognize the limits of ability to measure, resolution, measurement accuracy, etc. If you can only measure to a couple of decimal places, it's wrong to keep adding digits to falsely imply greater accuracy. In this case the bar would appear to be whether there was anything to warrant prosecution; if not, it's over. If two years of a witch hunt didn't find it, it's not there.
If your laboratory buys some fancy new machine that, among other things, determines whether a liquid is an acid or a base, you pour in a gallon of liquid and the machine tells you it’s pH is somewhere between 4 and 11, do you go around telling people that the machine told you the liquid was acidic?
If I misinterpreted your text my bad Rocky. It just read that way to me is all. It could just be your narrative was close enough to the rest of the ongoing diatribe of never relenting on collusion and I threw you in that group. We rarely agree on the final position but at least we’ve been able to keep it civil.
Do a quick search about Barr and his supposed reaction to Mueller not issuing an obstruction finding one way or the other. He was supposedly madder than a pissed on hornets nest.
I will.
I'll have to admit that if you misread his comments, you weren't the only one who was confused. I sure thought that he was saying that Meuller's conclusions weren't satisfactory.
I’m not saying his conclusions are not satisfactory, I’m saying the report’s conclusion do not support your personal conclusions like “it’s proven there was no collusion” and, if I’m reading it correctly, “if a prosecutor doesn’t prosecute that means no crime occurred.” (I’m sure all the unsolved murder victims’ families will be heartened by this.)
Let me try it a different way. I’ll try to try to make this engineer/scientist friendly:
Basically envision “proof” as a Y axis that runs from -1 (absolute guilt) to 1 (absolute innocence). Probable cause is something like -.51, and beyond a reasonable doubt would be about -.8.
We don’t know what threshold Mueller set for doing what he did in Volume II. It’s at least probable cause (the legal standard for an indictment) but IMO as the investigation winds down the level of certainty needs to be higher to bring a charge or make a charging recommendation, I can’t say for certain that Mueller would agree with that.
The point at which the analysis changes from “can’t prove conspiracy” to “proven to be no conspiracy” is also debatable, but it’s definitely greater than 0.
Mueller’s conclusion was that the proof fell somewhere between those two points. Basically, that there was evidence to justify suspicion, but not to bring a charge.
Saying, “well he’s a prosecutor and he didn’t prosecute” tells you next to nothing about how compelling evidence was. It certainly doesn’t
prove there was no collusion, and it’s not even necessarily “so close as to basically be the same as no collusion.” In fact, it could be “got off on a technicality,” which is kind of the opposite of that.
You can get a sense of where those conclusions fall on that spectrum by evaluating at the evidence, but avoiding doing that seems to be the point of this whole “there can be no suspicion without a criminal referral” rhetoric.
I look at it and I don’t see a case for charging a conspiracy against anybody in the campaign, even Manafort, who came the closest. I’d want there to be more evidence than probable cause and while I think Manafort’s case rose to probable cause I don’t think you could ever hope to get reliable testimony out of Klimnik (who I mistakenly called Kislyak the other day). I agree, it’s been 2 years, if they didn’t find it, it’s time to let it go.
But acting like it’s been proven to be a hoax and even being suspicious that it might have happened at all is pure fantasy.