knucklehead_vol
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Everyone seems focused on the fact that he hired a criminal attorney, but I would think that being who he is he hired the best he could and that attorney would also be able to represent him in a civil case (or hire a team to do so). What is your take?
Everyone seems focused on the fact that he hired a criminal attorney, but I would think that being who he is he hired the best he could and that attorney would also be able to represent him in a civil case (or hire a team to do so). What is your take?
A possible crime has been committed, there has to be a presumption of guilt to start gathering evidence. If there's no evidence, the presumption of guilt moves to someone else, but the presumption has to be there to get the process started, does it not?
A possible crime has been committed, there has to be a presumption of guilt to start gathering evidence. If there's no evidence, the presumption of guilt moves to someone else, but the presumption has to be there to get the process started, does it not?
He is in the process of hiring the attorney it's the managing partner at a firm that does criminal and civil work. This guy does both as well and apparently at a very high level.
The guy may do both or associate with civil guys. Very rare that big firms do criminal work
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There does not have to be a presumption of guilt to gather evidence; in fact, such a presumption would lead to a predisposition that has the potential to blind the investigators from some evidence.
There does not have to be a presumption of guilt to gather evidence; in fact, such a presumption would lead to a predisposition that has the potential to blind the investigators from some evidence.
There does not have to be a presumption of guilt to gather evidence; in fact, such a presumption would lead to a predisposition that has the potential to blind the investigators from some evidence.
I'm splitting hairs here, but I'm referring to presumption of guilt in reference to the possible crime itself, not necessarily the person being charged.
If there's no presumption of guilt by a prosecutor, then how could there be a possible crime?
Why does it matter?
Jesus.In one case, you are asserting from the beginning that a crime definitely occurred, there was definitely a victim, and there was definitely an guilty party. Those predispositions would drive you to find evidence to conform to your own predispositions.
In the other cause, you are asserting that there might have been a crime, there might have been a victim, and there might be a guilty party. This is more open and allows one to more easily obtain and analyse evidence objectively, without the force of having to convict anyone.
In one case, you are asserting from the beginning that a crime definitely occurred, there was definitely a victim, and there was definitely an guilty party. Those predispositions would drive you to find evidence to conform to your own predispositions.
In the other cause, you are asserting that there might have been a crime, there might have been a victim, and there might be a guilty party. This is more open and allows one to more easily obtain and analyse evidence objectively, without the force of having to convict anyone.
I asked this question last night and never really got answer. At least I didn't see one. But considering where the topic has gone...
1. Why did JP get fired?
2. With that answer. Did the BoT need something to make this decision with? Or did they just need a clean house mentality without something to pin JP to?
I asked this question last night and never really got answer. At least I didn't see one. But considering where the topic has gone...
1. Why did JP get fired?
2. With that answer. Did the BoT need something to make this decision with? Or did they just need a clean house mentality without something to pin JP to?