clarksvol00
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Rational and reasonable restrictions are not infringements.Shall not be infringed
It is right there. You're basically saying that if someone is receiving government assistance, they should not be allowed to vote.
A follow-up: today @VolinWayne stated that he took government covid money (which was approved under trump) for his business, wound up not needing it, and felt guilty because of it. I asked him if would donate the funds to a charitable cause and he responded that he spent it on his acreage in GA. Should he be prohibited from voting because of his utilization of government largesse?No, not at all. Quit trying to read things that aren’t there.
A follow-up: today @VolinWayne stated that he took government covid money (which was approved under trump) for his business, wound up not needing it, and felt guilty because of it. I asked him if would donate the funds to a charitable cause and he responded that he spent it on his acreage in GA. Should he be prohibited from voting because of his utilization of government largesse?
Depending on which program the money came from he may be subject to prosecution.
You have to steal a buttload for the feds to care. Even if he's not subject to prosecution, the point still stands. Whether you're taking foodstuffs and welfare, or sucking up governmental corporate assistance without needing it; you're still on relying on gov't largesse. Do we take away Wayne's right to vote, too?
You have to steal a buttload for the feds to care. Even if he's not subject to prosecution, the point still stands. Whether you're taking foodstuffs and welfare, or sucking up governmental corporate assistance without needing it; you're still on relying on gov't largesse. Do we take away Wayne's right to vote, too?
I have no problem with that. Seems rational and reasonable.