volinbham
VN GURU
- Joined
- Oct 21, 2004
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Its always been an interesting debate to me. If you use stop and frisk in high crime areas, it will disproportionately affect minorities because high crime areas tend to be poorer, and demographics indicate that such will have larger minority populations.
Objectively, your motive is to invoke it in high crime areas.
Subjectively, that means more minorities are subject to it.
So by what standard do we judge it as a policy? The intent to direct it to an area because it is high crime? Or the perceived weighted effect on minorities?
I can see both sides of the argument.
As with most things there are two or multiple sides. However, the D-party in particular has decided not only is there only one-side to this but if you support it in anyway then you are racist. It's nuts but those are the rules the D's created.