g8terh8ter_eric
No Disassemble!
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Yes. Income redistribution is a big positive, IF it is going to help the less fortunate in society.....
Are you seriously suggesting Adam Smith did not advocate trade tariffs?
It should be progressive as Adam Smith declared.
Why bother? He's simply going to make up something else and pretend we're the uneducated.Smith absolutely ridicules tariffs. His only support for them is in the form of privatized tariffs levied by those people who operate and run docks; and then, he only supports them to the amount that they cover the costs and risks of operating the docks.
On a handful of occasions, Smith criticizes the imposition of tariffs, as they restrict commerce and ultimately do not lead to higher revenues for the national treasury.
Were y'all asleep in the 1990s?
The point is building a more solid productive base, not inflating a market bubble.
:facepalm:
Let's just look at GDP real growth and productivity (non-farm) from the "developmental era" to the New World Order.
GDP
1960 - 69 4.4%
1970 - 79 3.3%
1980-90 2.9%
1991 - 00 3.2%
Productivity
1960 - 69 2.8%
1970 - 79 1.9%
1980-90 1.4%
1991 - 00 2.0%
NIPA and Bureau of Labor Statistics
Shoring up high wages and full employment is far, far, far, far more productive and efficient than speculating on currencies and CDOs.
:epic facepalm: You should know better, IP. More points you DIDN'T score.
Since your such a proponent of Mr. Smith, why is it you don't disagree with Obama's plans that tinker with the economy? (Obamacare and TARP) Laissez-faire was something Smith was very much in favor of. I guess you pick and choose what you like about the guy to push your beliefs.
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I still don't know what points you are talking about.
What sort of underlying mechanisms are you attributing to what you are saying?
I still don't know what you are talking about.
The data above suggests a "development" economy, the one we had prior to Thatcher and Reaganomics, is far more efficient than what followed (some realUT word history, economics was originally the science of economizing.)
You suggested what followed was, I believe your words were "efficient and fluid." History, simply, does not support your contention.
I still don't know what you are talking about.
The data above suggests a "development" economy, the one we had prior to Thatcher and Reaganomics, is far more efficient than what followed (some realUT word history, economics was originally the science of economizing.)
You suggested what followed was, I believe your words were "efficient and fluid." History, simply, does not support your contention.
and of course the tax rate must be the reason for this? not just the normal difference between a developing and a developed economy?
I still don't know what you are talking about.
The data above suggests a "development" economy, the one we had prior to Thatcher and Reaganomics, is far more efficient than what followed (some realUT word history, economics was originally the science of economizing.)
You suggested what followed was, I believe your words were "efficient and fluid." History, simply, does not support your contention.
You are in the wrong debate now. We are talking about two different economic models, one in which IP described as "efficient and fluid" an assertion which does not stand up to scrutiny from the real world outside the back door.
None of this (whether valid or not) addresses the pass through effect of corporate taxation on pricing. Pricing reflects taxes.
You can argue whether it is or isn't still better to have taxing but denying the pass through simply doesn't fly and you've shown absolutely nothing to support your assertion on this matter.
Why did prices go up during the 1990s when corporate profits were at an all time high, thanks to low taxes? (not enhanced profitability mind you)
Then explain how you can make your claims when 1. inflation was > 0, and 2. purchasing power went down during that time frame.