newokie03
In Vino Veritas
- Joined
- Jan 4, 2012
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Are you saying they abuse it equally?
Because no one in their right mind would claim that.
New York Is Ordered by Appeals Court to Redraw House Map
New York says hi.
Are you saying they abuse it equally?
Because no one in their right mind would claim that.
Are you saying they abuse it equally?
Because no one in their right mind would claim that.
LOL......Did you bother to read it?
New York Is Ordered by Appeals Court to Redraw House Map
The decision, if upheld, could allow Democrats to shift as many as six G.O.P.-held seats in their direction. Republicans vowed to appeal.
The repubs even abused it in NY.
So you're not in your right mind?Yes, the democrats invented it.
Democrats created gerrymandering—they must own it | The Hill
The so-called attempt to disenfranchise minorities through gerrymandering has the Democrats’ DNA all over it, and if you know your history, you’d understand this statement. Full stop, a non-political assertion, the Democrats invented gerrymandering. Have you ever wondered where the name gerrymandering originated? Unfortunately, the answer does not live in textbook materials in your middle school civics book; however, it does live in a multitude of literature that is easily accessible courtesy of the internet.
The word “gerrymander” originated when the Boston Gazette published a political cartoon depicting a newly drawn serpent-like district in Massachusetts by Jeffersonian Republicans, formally known today as the Democrat Party. The man who signed off on this politicalized map (although admittedly reluctant) was the then governor of the commonwealth and future fifth vice president of the United States, a man by the name Eldridge Gerry. Oppositionists in the press quickly reacted and labeled the political move “The Gerry Mander,” a play on the governor’s last name and the shape of the newly created district that resembled a salamander. This name lives on till this day.
Democrats decry gerrymandering — unless they control the maps | The Hill
You know Dems objected to electors after the 2016 election too right? VP Biden rightfully said no just like VP Pence rightfully said no to Trump.It appears that way. I wonder where that idea came from? We wouldn't even be in the conversation if there had not been an objection to the people's vote in 2020. Yet here we are and some are still claiming the vote was stolen in 5-6 states... Geez. Pot/kettle = Black.
The way this would play out is some federal official would simply bar Trump in some way, by claiming he was disqualified. An official would refuse to put him on the ballot, perhaps. Then Trump would sue. Alternatively, a federal official could seek a declaratory judgment that Trump can be barred from the ballot. There are probably other ways it could be teed up, but these are two pretty obvious ways.
This is not a whole lot different than if a non-citizen tried to get on the ballot. The federal official could make the decision he's not qualified, and bar him from the ballot, leaving the candidate to sue, or the federal official could seek a declaratory judgment from the court declaring the candidate not qualified and permitting the exclusion
This is exactly why the Dems call it an “insurrection” rather than the correct term. It was a “riot” by an extreme minority of the protestors.
So are you saying you accept the government providing false info as long as it go against someone you think in guilty of something that isn't illegal and can't be proven.......It was a fake dossier, but there was no hoax."Hoax" is another term no one used before Trump told them so. Law enforcement agencies have always implemented "fake" dossiers to catch career criminals who have evaded prosecution by creating insulated shells. Is it lawful? By the constitution? A firm NO! BUT career criminals have also looped through laws to evade prosecution. The former happens as a result of the latter
Your point was brought up on page one. To my knowledge, no one has refuted your thoughts or named the arbiter.No attorney here, but this part of The Atlantic article makes no sense:
"... [violators of Section 3 of the Constitution] are automatically disqualified from holding future office and must therefore be barred from election to any office."
How exactly does "automatic disqualification" occur? Does the US Constitution, itself, stand up and point a vellum finger at the perp?
Seems to me that some arbiter of fact would be required to determine disqualification, right? Otherwise, couldn't my neighbor, for instance, point a finger at me and claim I'm automatically disqualified - free from material facts?
Last I checked, such arbiters of fact are called "courtrooms". As such, a judge and/or jury would determine guilt, not some non-existent "automatic disqualification" posited by the authors. This exercise in legal theory looks like pure ivory tower bullsh*t to me.
And the only reason the we are still talking about it is that you just brought it up. It has happen to the Dem's twice and they have moved on. So who is acting like the Adult in the Room.You know Dems objected to electors after the 2016 election too right? VP Biden rightfully said no just like VP Pence rightfully said no to Trump.
This is not hard. Some official says "Mr. Trump, you're not qualified to be on the ballot pursuant to Section 3 of the 14th Amendment." That official doesn't put Trump on the ballot. Trump then needs to sue to get on the ballot (probably through a mandamus action). Alternatively, that official could say "I don't believe Trump is qualified under Section 3, but I need a court to agree with my interpretation. So, I'll file a declaratory judgment action to make sure I'm in the right before I act."Your point was brought up on page one. To my knowledge, no one has refuted your thoughts or named the arbiter.
This is not hard. Some official says "Mr. Trump, you're not qualified to be on the ballot pursuant to Section 3 of the 14th Amendment." That official doesn't put Trump on the ballot. Trump then needs to sue to get on the ballot (probably through a mandamus action). Alternatively, that official could say "I don't believe Trump is qualified under Section 3, but I need a court to agree with my interpretation. So, I'll file a declaratory judgment action to make sure I'm in the right before I act."
mandamus
declaratory judgment