Without wading into the whole Tucker thing, which is a waste of time here IMO:
I would like to ask a simple question for those who might know (
@Septic or others) - what is the actual difference between
1) a "biological weapons lab" and
2) a "biological research lab" that contains and researches
at least anthrax and botulism (since these have been directly stated by our government)?
As someone who once owned a (pharmaceutical) research lab, if I didn't know better, it would seem the only difference is "intent to weaponize". To know the real intent would seem to require trusting our state dept flacks when they say that there was only good intent and thus good work done there?
I mean note, it went from
THERE ARE NO BIOLABS, ANYONE WHO SAYS SO IS CRAZY to
THERE ARE NO BIOWEAPONSLABS, ANYONE WHO SAYS SO IS CRAZY to
THE USA DOES NOT OPERATE ANY BIOWEAPONSLABS IN UKRAINE, ANYONE WHO SAYS SO IS CRAZY to
The USA does not
directly operate any biolabs in Ukraine, though we
may have funded some research in the past to help dispose of dangerous pathogens. to
Any research the USA may have funded directly or indirectly in any biolabs in Ukraine, was for research purposes ONLY, but we are rather anxious that the dangerous pathogens there like anthrax and botulism may fall into Russian hands but anything bad happening from this would TOTALLY be the fault of those bad Russians
Can you see how the average person might think there is just a little something off here or are they CRAZY?