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Actually, no. There never has been an official charge of "insurrection" to the intent of the law.
The CO justices are ruling there was an insurrection when it's never been formally charged against anyone.
Where is it written that there has to be a "charge" for the supreme court to weigh in on the legality or constitutionality of an issue?
Since there hasn't been a "charge" does that meant that SCOTUS can't have an opinion on this?