If this is "political," mods please move. I am trying to understand why the US Women's National soccer team is suing because of a "pay gap." I have read this article:
Breaking it down: What exactly is the gap in pay between USWNT and USMNT players?
and it explains it some. However, if their pay is based upon their own Collective Bargaining Agreement, how is that anyone's fault except their own? With regards to how FIFA distributes the prize money, I am sure some if it based upon the revenue generated by the event. I have not looked at the numbers, but I am guessing that attendance and TV ratings for the men's World Cup are higher. That seems to lead to a market value distribution of the funds generated. Am I missing something here?
No, I think your last paragraph nailed it. In fact, I read where FIFA distributes some 7% of revenues to men players and 20% of the women's tourney to the women players.
US women players have to remember, as big as it is here, it is a miniscule tournament worldwide compared to the men's. The simple fact is they bring in much less money.
I'm all for pay equity, but that equity has to be based on what they produced. It's like saying Minor league players make less than Majors. Well yeah, a Smokies ticket is like $7 and is not televised. One simply produces far more value than the other.
Pay equity makes total sense in the corporate/public realm where 2 people may be at the same tier or produce the same level of value. But sports is extremely uneven and not a place where this usually works. Everyone, most men and all, are looking up to the Lebrons, Bradys, etc at the top making crazy money.
Edit: WC Figures
"FIFA’s 2018 financial report said it earned revenue of $
5.357 billion from the men’s tournament in Russia"
"Forbes estimated the Women’s World Cup will generate about $
131 million for the four-year cycle ending in 2022"