Darth_Shiveman
Probably Being Facetious
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1. Council of Nicea did not set the stage for canon. The church had been using the books of the New Testament long before this. It isn't as tho Nicea came along and said, okay, these as the books in the canon and these are not. That's why I keep referencing a conspiracy. Lot of folks think that's what happened, wrongly. By the end of the first century, the church was already circulating he four gospels and some of the Pauline corpus. Marcion the heretic had formulated his canon in the mid 2nd century which sped up the church's need to formulate he canon. There were many early versions of the canon, Muratorian canon in the mid 2nd century, Origen, Irenaeus, all of these had a list of NT books before Nicea. These list included most books that are currently in our Nt, some added Shepherd of Hermas and the Didache. Eusebius has a list at the end of the 3rd century with 3 categories of books: the universally agreed upon that included 22 books of the NT; books that were debatable but mostly accepted James, Jude, 2nd Peter, 2nd and 3rd John, then the doubtful books that were the Shepherd of Hermas, Didache Epistle of Clement of Rome to the Corinthians. Athanasius at the end of the 4th century has a canon and this canon is our NT today, all 27 books. Two synods of the church would eventually confirm this canon in 393 and 397. s you can see, Nicea did not set the stage for Canon. The canon was in the works long before Nicea. And even then, these books were already being used by the church. They were circulating and being used in worship by the church from the end of the 1st century. These 27 books were included not because some authority decided it, but rather, because their inherent authority was recognized by the church. Four questions were asked: 1. Did he books have their own inherent authority? 2. Did the church use them in worship? 3. Was the book consistent with other books in the canon? 4. And most important, was the book associated with an apostle?
This is again getting into semantics, but mentioning that a canon was was agreed upon by the Church in the decades following the council of Nicea doesn't discredit that it set the stage for a establishing an official church canon. Different churches had their own canons before and during Nicea. After the second ecumenical, there was a widely accepted canon.
Second, I never denied that Arians were a part of the visible early church, but. biblically, they were not part of the church. And it isn't as tho Nicea decided these guys were heretics when they were just part of the church before. Arias was excommunicated at the council of Alexandria in 321. His teachings had become a problem however, so Nicea was called and the orthodox view and Athanasius won and the word homoousios was formed to describe the person of Christ. It is the orthodox view, because it is the biblical view. Arianism was and still is a heresy.
And no, if things had gone the other way, which, of course, they couldn't have, I wouldn't be arguing for Arius. There is no biblical support for the teachings of Arianism. Period. I understand that we live in a postmodern world, but there is such a thing as truth.
The Bible never mentions Arians, so you can't that "biblically they were never part of the church" anymore than I can say "biblically Baptists are not a part of God's church" lol
As for no biblical support, you realize the Arians used biblical (often Old Testament, but NT as well) writings to justify their beliefs, right? They believed that God created Jesus, who was of somewhat lesser status than God, because of verses that say things like "the Father is greater than I." They had different interpretations of the scripture, but it's not like they were making things up out of thin air.