n_huffhines
What's it gonna cost?
- Joined
- Mar 11, 2009
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it happens, but it isn't required to happen. my issue with your argument is that you imply a 1:1:1 ratio, and I don't think that exists. and I don't think that was the original implication, maybe the argument has wandered too far from the op.
a person can have a crisis of faith, and still lean right, and maintain or theoretically improve their happiness, assuming the religion/belief was wrong.
a person can lean right, be unhappy, and not be religious.
a person can be happy, and not be religious, or lean to the right.
and any combination there of. changing one thing, doesn't require a change in any of the others. there is definitely some overlap, but I think its correlation and not causation, at least as a rule. which to me implies that happiness is not derived from the implicit fact of being right leaning or religious, that seems to be the current argument. maybe I am wrong about the current argument, but that is what I am taking exception to.
I have such a hard time getting on the same page as you.
It sounds like you're saying because there are exceptions to the rule, then you will conclude it's not causation, it's correlation? I would say that's a non-sequitur conclusion. There are of course exceptions to every rule, including rules where there is a causal relationship.
But I don't even know how we got there to causation vs. correlation. Are you saying religion doesn't make people happier? This is all very confusing to me.