Derek Chauvin trial

VI. Toxicology (see attached report for full details; testing
performed on antemortem blood specimens collected 5/25/20 at
9:00 p.m. at HHC and on postmortem urine)
A. Blood drug and novel psychoactive substances screens:
1. Fentanyl 11 ng/mL
2. Norfentanyl 5.6 ng/mL
3. 4-ANPP 0.65 ng/mL
4. Methamphetamine 19 ng/mL
5. 11-Hydroxy Delta-9 THC 1.2 ng/mL;
Delta-9 Carboxy THC 42 ng/mL; Delta-9 THC 2.9 ng/mL
6. Cotinine positive
7. Caffeine positive
B. Blood volatiles: negative for ethanol, methanol,
isopropanol, or acetone
C. Urine drug screen: presumptive positive for cannabinoids,
amphetamines, and fentanyl/metabolite
D. Urine drug screen confirmation: morphine (free) 86 ng/mL
 
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How’s that a hypothetical? You realize partially ingested tablets with his dna were found in the floor of police cruiser right?
So you know he ingested those rather than handling them, when he ingested them, and how much exactly in relation to his death? Enlighten me. Specific to the minute please, because that is what your hypothetical scenario requires.
 
I posted the levels of each drug from the toxicology report just a minute ago. 19 ng/ml.... but I have no idea if this is a high level or a trace amount
I think I’ve only seen it measured in mg/L for blood concentration. So doing the conversion, that’s 0.019 mg/L. From what I’m reading, the fatal level range for methamphetamines is generally from 1.4 to 13 mg/L. So using that range as a reference, that would be an extremely trace amount. Basically irrelevant, assuming I did my math right.
 
I think I’ve only seen it measured in mg/L for blood concentration. So doing the conversion, that’s 0.019 mg/L. From what I’m reading, the fatal level range for methamphetamines is generally from 1.4 to 13 mg/L. So using that range as a reference, that would be an extremely trace amount. Basically irrelevant, assuming I did my math right.
I found this in an article from The Journal of Analytical Toxicology..... and you’re right.... it’s a trace amount...
Deaths resulting from overdose have been shown with methamphetamine concentrations ranging from 0.09 to 18 mg/L, with an average of 1.0 mg/L
 
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I found this in an article from The Journal of Analytical Toxicology..... and you’re right.... it’s a trace amount...
Deaths resulting from overdose have been shown with methamphetamine concentrations ranging from 0.09 to 18 mg/L, with an average of 1.0 mg/L
It's possible something else he had taken was laced with small amounts of meth.
 
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Admittedly, coherent was a stretch but he was absolutely communicating. People in the throes of overdosing aren't able to fend off police needing cuffs and physical restraint nor are they explaining that they're claustrophobic.

Again, either he was od'ing or he was resisting necessitating cuffs n' knees. Can't use both as a defense, well.. not and still be convincing.
You don’t know what you are talking about
 
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So you know he ingested those rather than handling them, when he ingested them, and how much exactly in relation to his death? Enlighten me. Specific to the minute please, because that is what your hypothetical scenario requires.

It’s his saliva. You should keep up with the case
 
Fluid in the lungs can be and is routinely as a result of cpr.

You're implying it was just fentanyl, objectively it could have been the cpr or fentanyl or both.
Objectively it could have been that 90% RCA or that 75% LAD, the enlarged heart that already started remodeling from hypertension and smoking.
 
That’s why the defense pointed out that he volunteered to do this case. His testimony was odd. Like how he never mentioned the difficulty breathing prior to being on the ground.
Just muddying the waters some more. That’s why they have hired how many experts witnesses to date, like 5 or 6?
 
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Objectively it could have been that 90% RCA or that 75% LAD, the enlarged heart that already started remodeling from hypertension and smoking.

If you had a patient with lung cancer or an enlarged heart and someone walked into thier hospital room and shot them in the chest, would you blame them for being in the hospital first or wait until the autopsy results came out to point out that if the heart was normal sized or if the lungs didn't have a mass, the bullet wouldn't have hit anything?
 
If you had a patient with lung cancer or an enlarged heart and someone walked into thier hospital room and shot them in the chest, would you blame them for being in the hospital first or wait until the autopsy results came out to point out that if the heart was normal sized or if the lungs didn't have a mass, the bullet wouldn't have hit anything?
You think I’ll actually go there...
 
If you had a patient with lung cancer or an enlarged heart and someone walked into thier hospital room and shot them in the chest, would you blame them for being in the hospital first or wait until the autopsy results came out to point out that if the heart was normal sized or if the lungs didn't have a mass, the bullet wouldn't have hit anything?

Was your cancer patient being arrested, resisting arrest, and did the person who harmed them follow protocol?
 
I think I’ve only seen it measured in mg/L for blood concentration. So doing the conversion, that’s 0.019 mg/L. From what I’m reading, the fatal level range for methamphetamines is generally from 1.4 to 13 mg/L. So using that range as a reference, that would be an extremely trace amount. Basically irrelevant, assuming I did my math right.
He was black. Basically every little thing can be fatal to them because of their genetics. They are the race most susceptible to every form of disease and ailment out there. Except malaria.
 
I think I’ve only seen it measured in mg/L for blood concentration. So doing the conversion, that’s 0.019 mg/L. From what I’m reading, the fatal level range for methamphetamines is generally from 1.4 to 13 mg/L. So using that range as a reference, that would be an extremely trace amount. Basically irrelevant, assuming I did my math right.
The maths irrelevant, it’s all on the autopsy report.
 
Was your cancer patient being arrested, resisting arrest, and did the person who harmed them follow protocol?

What difference would it make? You're strawmanning variables that are extraneous to the question that was asked of NGV.

Either Floyd was in the throes of overdosing or he was a threat in need of being subdued with cuffs and knees, you simply can't have it both ways.

Pick a lane.

Also, Chauvin's Chief of Police and every other expert witness that has taken the stand, said it wasn't "protocol." It's like you guys aren't paying attention to the reality of what's being testified to and instead keep regurgitating long debunked twitter points.

Floyd may have died due to history of hypertension, drug use, smoking, sickle cell, drinking or he may have been hit by a bus 30 seconds after leaving the quick-e-mart. But we'll never know because we have video evidence of a guy compressing his neck into cement for ten minutes where three pathologists point to and state that was the proximate cause of his demise.
 

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