rjd970
Well-Known Member
- Joined
- Sep 19, 2007
- Messages
- 24,297
- Likes
- 24,317
i understand the theory that translated in hebrew doesn't neccasarily mean 24 hours. are you saying that it isn't fixed? i.e. i can say the first day blah blah blah, the second day blah blah blah. and the first day and second day aren't the same amount of time? that's not the way i understood it from my years of catholic school.![]()
This is true. The fact that separate "days" was used indicates a fixed interval of time. Even by allegorical or interpretive methods this would have to be so.